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You really should read down to the bottom of that article, where it says that businesses are allowed to set the terms of what forms of payment they’ll accept as long as they do so before the deal is made or the sale is done. Your own source contradicts what you said.
Don’t quit your day job to start giving people legal advice.
Did you not read anything I said? You don’t have a debt before the deal is made or the sale is done.
The article does not say that the debt holder can specify the form of payment to exclude legal tender before the debt is incurred.